Measurement and Evaluation in Education (EDCN-804E) - Full Mock Test 1 Full Mock

Q1 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q1. The statement "anything that exists at all, exists in some quantity; and anything that exists in some quantity is capable of being measured" is attributed to

A E. L. Thorndike B J. P. Guilford C James M. Bradfield D Norman E. Gronlund

Q2 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q1. The statement "anything that exists at all, exists in some quantity; and anything that exists in some quantity is capable of being measured" is attributed to

A E. L. Thorndike B J. P. Guilford C James M. Bradfield D Norman E. Gronlund

Q3 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q2. According to J. P. Guilford, measurement is the

A observation of the magnitude of a variant B process of assigning symbols to the dimension of a phenomenon C assignment of numerals to objects or events according to certain rules D quantitative description of pupils through scores

Q4 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q2. According to J. P. Guilford, measurement is the

A observation of the magnitude of a variant B process of assigning symbols to the dimension of a phenomenon C assignment of numerals to objects or events according to certain rules D quantitative description of pupils through scores

Q5 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q3. Measurement essentially answers which question?

A How much B Why C How good D For what purpose

Q6 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q3. Measurement essentially answers which question?

A How much B Why C How good D For what purpose

Q7 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q4. Consider the following statements about measurement and evaluation:

1. Measurement has more administrative utility in education than evaluation.
2. The process of measurement is more precise and objective in approach than evaluation.
3. An evaluation process is useful in modifying and improving the learning system and instructional procedure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q8 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q4. Consider the following statements about measurement and evaluation:

1. Measurement has more administrative utility in education than evaluation.
2. The process of measurement is more precise and objective in approach than evaluation.
3. An evaluation process is useful in modifying and improving the learning system and instructional procedure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q9 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q5. Measurement in any field involves three essentials. Which of the following is not one of them?

A Identification and definition of the quantity, attribute or variable to be measured B Judging the worth of the attribute against a predetermined standard C Establishing a set of procedures for translating observations into quantitative statements of degree, extent or amount D Determining the set of operations by which the attribute may be made perceivable

Q10 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q5. Measurement in any field involves three essentials. Which of the following is not one of them?

A Identification and definition of the quantity, attribute or variable to be measured B Judging the worth of the attribute against a predetermined standard C Establishing a set of procedures for translating observations into quantitative statements of degree, extent or amount D Determining the set of operations by which the attribute may be made perceivable

Q11 Types of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q6. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of mental measurement as compared with physical measurement?

A It always starts from an absolute zero B It uses tools that are uniform all over the world C It is always relative and there is no absolute zero D It is always accurate and purely quantitative

Q12 Types of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q6. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of mental measurement as compared with physical measurement?

A It always starts from an absolute zero B It uses tools that are uniform all over the world C It is always relative and there is no absolute zero D It is always accurate and purely quantitative

Q13 Functions of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q7. Lee J. Cronbach classified all applications of mental measurement under how many main functions, and in which year?

A Three functions, in 1949 B Two functions, in 1949 C Three functions, in 1956 D Four functions, in 1948

Q14 Functions of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q7. Lee J. Cronbach classified all applications of mental measurement under how many main functions, and in which year?

A Three functions, in 1949 B Two functions, in 1949 C Three functions, in 1956 D Four functions, in 1948

Q15 Functions of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q8. Which function of measurement carries administrative functions such as classification, selection, promotion and gradation of students?

A Diagnosis function B Prognosis function C Research function D Remedial function

Q16 Functions of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q8. Which function of measurement carries administrative functions such as classification, selection, promotion and gradation of students?

A Diagnosis function B Prognosis function C Research function D Remedial function

Q17 Functions of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q9. The unit distinguishes diagnosis from prognosis on the ground that

A prognosis is used only in research settings B diagnosis involves no prediction at all C diagnosis establishes a cause-effect relationship, while prediction implies a simple relationship D diagnosis is carried out only after the course has ended

Q18 Functions of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q9. The unit distinguishes diagnosis from prognosis on the ground that

A prognosis is used only in research settings B diagnosis involves no prediction at all C diagnosis establishes a cause-effect relationship, while prediction implies a simple relationship D diagnosis is carried out only after the course has ended

Q19 Methods of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q10. In a psychological or educational test, the items are placed in

A increasing order of difficulty B random order to prevent guessing C decreasing order of difficulty D the order in which the syllabus is taught

Q20 Methods of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q10. In a psychological or educational test, the items are placed in

A increasing order of difficulty B random order to prevent guessing C decreasing order of difficulty D the order in which the syllabus is taught

Q21 Methods of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q11. Traits such as honesty, punctuality, persistence and truthfulness are best measured through which method?

A Tests B Observation C Inventories D Rating by peers alone

Q22 Methods of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q11. Traits such as honesty, punctuality, persistence and truthfulness are best measured through which method?

A Tests B Observation C Inventories D Rating by peers alone

Q23 Scaling +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q12. In comparative scaling, as distinguished from non-comparative scaling,

A each item is scaled independently of others B only nominal data can be collected C items are directly compared with each other D no numerical value is assigned at all

Q24 Scaling +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q12. In comparative scaling, as distinguished from non-comparative scaling,

A each item is scaled independently of others B only nominal data can be collected C items are directly compared with each other D no numerical value is assigned at all

Q25 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q13. Which of the following is the lowest measurement scale used in data analysis?

A Nominal scale B Ordinal scale C Interval scale D Ratio scale

Q26 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q13. Which of the following is the lowest measurement scale used in data analysis?

A Nominal scale B Ordinal scale C Interval scale D Ratio scale

Q27 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q14. Which statistics are appropriate for data collected on a nominal scale?

A Mean and standard deviation B Mode, and cross tabulation with chi-square C Correlation r and regression D Analysis of variance and factor analysis

Q28 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q14. Which statistics are appropriate for data collected on a nominal scale?

A Mean and standard deviation B Mode, and cross tabulation with chi-square C Correlation r and regression D Analysis of variance and factor analysis

Q29 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q15. Consider the following statements about the ordinal scale:

1. Ranking is the simplest ordinal scale.
2. There is never an absolute or objective distance between any two ranks on this scale.
3. It interprets gross order only, and not the relative positional distances among ranks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q30 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q15. Consider the following statements about the ordinal scale:

1. Ranking is the simplest ordinal scale.
2. There is never an absolute or objective distance between any two ranks on this scale.
3. It interprets gross order only, and not the relative positional distances among ranks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q31 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q16. The essential feature that distinguishes the interval scale from the ordinal scale is that

A the interval scale has a true zero point B the interval scale permits only non-parametric analysis C the interval scale assumes and keeps an equal distance between two consecutive points D the interval scale cannot be used for ranking

Q32 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q16. The essential feature that distinguishes the interval scale from the ordinal scale is that

A the interval scale has a true zero point B the interval scale permits only non-parametric analysis C the interval scale assumes and keeps an equal distance between two consecutive points D the interval scale cannot be used for ranking

Q33 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q17. Which of the following statements about the ratio scale is correct?

A It is the top level scale of measurement and has a true zero point, but is generally not available in social science research B It is the lowest level of measurement and is common in social science research C It has an arbitrary zero point, as in the centigrade scale D It permits only the mode as a measure of central tendency

Q34 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q17. Which of the following statements about the ratio scale is correct?

A It is the top level scale of measurement and has a true zero point, but is generally not available in social science research B It is the lowest level of measurement and is common in social science research C It has an arbitrary zero point, as in the centigrade scale D It permits only the mode as a measure of central tendency

Q35 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q18. Regarding the use of non-parametric techniques with interval and ratio data, the unit notes that

A they cannot be used at all B they can be used, but are less powerful than parametric tests C they are more powerful than parametric tests D they may be used only when the sample exceeds 100

Q36 Measuring Scales +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q18. Regarding the use of non-parametric techniques with interval and ratio data, the unit notes that

A they cannot be used at all B they can be used, but are less powerful than parametric tests C they are more powerful than parametric tests D they may be used only when the sample exceeds 100

Q37 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q19. "To observe or determine the magnitude of a variant" is the explanation of measurement given by

A Lee J. Cronbach B E. L. Thorndike C the Encyclopedia of Educational Research D Benjamin Bloom

Q38 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q19. "To observe or determine the magnitude of a variant" is the explanation of measurement given by

A Lee J. Cronbach B E. L. Thorndike C the Encyclopedia of Educational Research D Benjamin Bloom

Q39 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q20. Quantification, as used in the context of measurement, indicates

A to what extent a particular attribute is present in a particular object B whether an attribute is present or absent in an object C the worth or value of the attribute measured D the cause of the attribute being present

Q40 Concept of Measurement +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q20. Quantification, as used in the context of measurement, indicates

A to what extent a particular attribute is present in a particular object B whether an attribute is present or absent in an object C the worth or value of the attribute measured D the cause of the attribute being present

Q41 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q21. Evaluation carried out during the teaching-learning process to monitor the ongoing formation of knowledge and understanding is called

A placement evaluation B formative evaluation C diagnostic evaluation D summative evaluation

Q42 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q21. Evaluation carried out during the teaching-learning process to monitor the ongoing formation of knowledge and understanding is called

A placement evaluation B formative evaluation C diagnostic evaluation D summative evaluation

Q43 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q22. The B.Ed. entrance test conducted to admit students to the B.Ed. course is an example of

A formative evaluation B diagnostic evaluation C placement evaluation D summative evaluation

Q44 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q22. The B.Ed. entrance test conducted to admit students to the B.Ed. course is an example of

A formative evaluation B diagnostic evaluation C placement evaluation D summative evaluation

Q45 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q23. Diagnostic evaluation is specifically concerned with

A the persistent learning difficulties left unresolved by the corrective prescriptions of formative assessment B grading students at the end of a semester C deciding which course a student should be admitted to D certifying the final product of instruction

Q46 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q23. Diagnostic evaluation is specifically concerned with

A the persistent learning difficulties left unresolved by the corrective prescriptions of formative assessment B grading students at the end of a semester C deciding which course a student should be admitted to D certifying the final product of instruction

Q47 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q24. Consider the following statements about summative evaluation:

1. It is conducted at the end of a course, semester, class or topic.
2. No remedial teaching is given after summative evaluation.
3. The process of certification is done on the basis of its results.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q48 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q24. Consider the following statements about summative evaluation:

1. It is conducted at the end of a course, semester, class or topic.
2. No remedial teaching is given after summative evaluation.
3. The process of certification is done on the basis of its results.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q49 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q25. Which of the following is named in the unit as an important tool of summative evaluation?

A Diagnostic tests and vision tests B Achievement test, rating scales, project evaluation by experts and viva-voce examination C Entry behaviour checklists D Daily classroom observation schedules only

Q50 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q25. Which of the following is named in the unit as an important tool of summative evaluation?

A Diagnostic tests and vision tests B Achievement test, rating scales, project evaluation by experts and viva-voce examination C Entry behaviour checklists D Daily classroom observation schedules only

Q51 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q26. A teacher finds that despite using several alternative methods and techniques a student still faces learning difficulties, and therefore undertakes a detailed examination of the causes. This is best described as

A formative evaluation B placement evaluation C diagnostic evaluation D summative evaluation

Q52 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q26. A teacher finds that despite using several alternative methods and techniques a student still faces learning difficulties, and therefore undertakes a detailed examination of the causes. This is best described as

A formative evaluation B placement evaluation C diagnostic evaluation D summative evaluation

Q53 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q27. Which of the following questions is characteristic of placement evaluation?

A Whether the student possesses the knowledge and skills needed to begin the planned instruction B Whether the learner's progress during the course is satisfactory C What are the causes of the student's persistent learning problems D To what extent have the instructional objectives finally been achieved

Q54 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q27. Which of the following questions is characteristic of placement evaluation?

A Whether the student possesses the knowledge and skills needed to begin the planned instruction B Whether the learner's progress during the course is satisfactory C What are the causes of the student's persistent learning problems D To what extent have the instructional objectives finally been achieved

Q55 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q28. Benjamin Bloom and his co-workers began their work on the classification of educational objectives in which year, and proposed the classification in which year?

A Began 1949, proposed 1956 B Began 1948, proposed 1956 C Began 1948, proposed 1949 D Began 1956, proposed 1964

Q56 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q28. Benjamin Bloom and his co-workers began their work on the classification of educational objectives in which year, and proposed the classification in which year?

A Began 1949, proposed 1956 B Began 1948, proposed 1956 C Began 1948, proposed 1949 D Began 1956, proposed 1964

Q57 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q29. Bloom classified educational objectives into which three domains?

A Cognitive, conative and affective B Knowledge, comprehension and application C Cognitive, affective and psychomotor D Intellectual, emotional and social

Q58 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q29. Bloom classified educational objectives into which three domains?

A Cognitive, conative and affective B Knowledge, comprehension and application C Cognitive, affective and psychomotor D Intellectual, emotional and social

Q59 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q30. Consider the following statements about Bloom's three domains:

1. The three domains are divided from each other by watertight compartments.
2. Achievement in one domain influences achievement in another.
3. All domains develop in a hierarchical order.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q60 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q30. Consider the following statements about Bloom's three domains:

1. The three domains are divided from each other by watertight compartments.
2. Achievement in one domain influences achievement in another.
3. All domains develop in a hierarchical order.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q61 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q31. The affective domain of Bloom's taxonomy is concerned with

A attitudes, feelings, interests, values and beliefs of an individual B knowing and the intellectual aspects of personality C the skill aspects of personality involving the use of body parts D the classification of educational institutions

Q62 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q31. The affective domain of Bloom's taxonomy is concerned with

A attitudes, feelings, interests, values and beliefs of an individual B knowing and the intellectual aspects of personality C the skill aspects of personality involving the use of body parts D the classification of educational institutions

Q63 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q32. In Gandhi's definition of education quoted in the unit, the three dimensions of personality — body, mind and soul — are related to Bloom's domains as follows:

A mind indicates skills, soul the intellectual aspects, body the emotional aspects B mind indicates intellectual aspects, soul the emotional and moral aspects, body the development of skills C all three refer only to the cognitive domain D the parallel is rejected by the unit as inaccurate

Q64 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q32. In Gandhi's definition of education quoted in the unit, the three dimensions of personality — body, mind and soul — are related to Bloom's domains as follows:

A mind indicates skills, soul the intellectual aspects, body the emotional aspects B mind indicates intellectual aspects, soul the emotional and moral aspects, body the development of skills C all three refer only to the cognitive domain D the parallel is rejected by the unit as inaccurate

Q65 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q33. Within each of Bloom's domains, the levels of expertise or abilities are arranged

A alphabetically B in the order in which they are taught in the syllabus C in order of increasing complexity, that is in a hierarchical order of difficulty levels D randomly, since no order is implied

Q66 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q33. Within each of Bloom's domains, the levels of expertise or abilities are arranged

A alphabetically B in the order in which they are taught in the syllabus C in order of increasing complexity, that is in a hierarchical order of difficulty levels D randomly, since no order is implied

Q67 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q34. The word 'taxonomy' as used in this unit means the study of

A classification B measurement C evaluation D curriculum design

Q68 Taxonomy of Educational Objectives +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q34. The word 'taxonomy' as used in this unit means the study of

A classification B measurement C evaluation D curriculum design

Q69 Formative Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q35. Which of the following questions does formative evaluation seek to answer?

1. Whether the objectives of teaching a particular topic, content, course or curriculum are being achieved.
2. Whether the student's cognitive, affective and psychomotor domains are forming properly.
3. Whether the learner's scholastic and non-scholastic areas of personality are developing properly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q70 Formative Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q35. Which of the following questions does formative evaluation seek to answer?

1. Whether the objectives of teaching a particular topic, content, course or curriculum are being achieved.
2. Whether the student's cognitive, affective and psychomotor domains are forming properly.
3. Whether the learner's scholastic and non-scholastic areas of personality are developing properly.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q71 Concept of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q36. Evaluation, as defined in the unit, is a process of

A assigning numerals to objects according to rules B judgement of the value or worth of a process or product C determining the magnitude of a variant D converting raw scores into standard scores

Q72 Concept of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q36. Evaluation, as defined in the unit, is a process of

A assigning numerals to objects according to rules B judgement of the value or worth of a process or product C determining the magnitude of a variant D converting raw scores into standard scores

Q73 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q37. The clearest practical difference between formative and summative evaluation lies in the fact that

A formative evaluation assesses entry behaviour, while summative evaluation assesses progress B formative evaluation is used for certification, while summative evaluation is not C formative evaluation is followed by feedback and remedial action, while no remedial teaching is given after summative evaluation D summative evaluation is conducted during instruction, while formative evaluation comes at the end

Q74 Types of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q37. The clearest practical difference between formative and summative evaluation lies in the fact that

A formative evaluation assesses entry behaviour, while summative evaluation assesses progress B formative evaluation is used for certification, while summative evaluation is not C formative evaluation is followed by feedback and remedial action, while no remedial teaching is given after summative evaluation D summative evaluation is conducted during instruction, while formative evaluation comes at the end

Q75 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q38. Thorndike and Hagen defined norms as

A the average performance on a particular test made by a standardization sample B the highest score achieved on a particular test C the minimum score required to pass a test D the range between the highest and lowest scores in a group

Q76 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q38. Thorndike and Hagen defined norms as

A the average performance on a particular test made by a standardization sample B the highest score achieved on a particular test C the minimum score required to pass a test D the range between the highest and lowest scores in a group

Q77 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q39. A student scores 60 in English and 75 in Mathematics, but stands highest in the class in English and lowest in Mathematics. The unit uses this example to show that

A the student is genuinely better at Mathematics B raw scores alone can lead to a wrong interpretation, and must be converted into derived scores C the two tests must have been of equal difficulty D the class average is irrelevant to interpretation

Q78 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q39. A student scores 60 in English and 75 in Mathematics, but stands highest in the class in English and lowest in Mathematics. The unit uses this example to show that

A the student is genuinely better at Mathematics B raw scores alone can lead to a wrong interpretation, and must be converted into derived scores C the two tests must have been of equal difficulty D the class average is irrelevant to interpretation

Q79 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q40. Which of the following is stated in the unit as an importance of norms in measurement and evaluation?

1. They are the basis of interpreting raw scores into derived scores.
2. They place an individual in the exact place within a group.
3. They help in minimizing the interpretive error of a measuring instrument.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q80 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q40. Which of the following is stated in the unit as an importance of norms in measurement and evaluation?

1. They are the basis of interpreting raw scores into derived scores.
2. They place an individual in the exact place within a group.
3. They help in minimizing the interpretive error of a measuring instrument.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q81 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q41. In the context of norm-referenced evaluation, the term 'norm' means

A the established customs of society that most people follow without question B the minimum marks prescribed for passing C the average performance of the group D the highest marks obtained in the group

Q82 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q41. In the context of norm-referenced evaluation, the term 'norm' means

A the established customs of society that most people follow without question B the minimum marks prescribed for passing C the average performance of the group D the highest marks obtained in the group

Q83 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q42. A test of 50 objective questions of one mark each, with no negative marking, is given to 150 students. The total of all marks divided by 150 gives 30. In norm-referenced evaluation, a student scoring exactly 30 will be treated as

A average B above average C below average D failed, since 30 is below the pass mark

Q84 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q42. A test of 50 objective questions of one mark each, with no negative marking, is given to 150 students. The total of all marks divided by 150 gives 30. In norm-referenced evaluation, a student scoring exactly 30 will be treated as

A average B above average C below average D failed, since 30 is below the pass mark

Q85 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q43. Which of the following is a defining feature of norm-referenced evaluation?

A Decisions such as pass, fail and distinction are taken from criteria fixed in advance B There is no pass or fail, since no marks are set for passing C The performance of each student is compared with a predetermined standard D Only the highest scorer is treated as having achieved the objective

Q86 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q43. Which of the following is a defining feature of norm-referenced evaluation?

A Decisions such as pass, fail and distinction are taken from criteria fixed in advance B There is no pass or fail, since no marks are set for passing C The performance of each student is compared with a predetermined standard D Only the highest scorer is treated as having achieved the objective

Q87 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q44. In the unit's example, a 50-mark test fixes pass at 40 per cent and distinction at 80 per cent. The marks needed for a pass and for distinction are respectively

A 15 and 35 B 20 and 45 C 20 and 40 D 25 and 40

Q88 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q44. In the unit's example, a 50-mark test fixes pass at 40 per cent and distinction at 80 per cent. The marks needed for a pass and for distinction are respectively

A 15 and 35 B 20 and 45 C 20 and 40 D 25 and 40

Q89 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q45. In the same 50-mark example, if a prize is given to students scoring at least 90 per cent, the minimum marks required for the prize are

A 45 B 42 C 40 D 48

Q90 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q45. In the same 50-mark example, if a prize is given to students scoring at least 90 per cent, the minimum marks required for the prize are

A 45 B 42 C 40 D 48

Q91 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q46. Consider the following statements about criterion-referenced evaluation:

1. The performance of testees is evaluated with reference to some predetermined criteria.
2. No weightage is given to the norm or average performance of the group.
3. Decisions such as pass, fail and distinction are taken with reference to criteria set out in advance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q92 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q46. Consider the following statements about criterion-referenced evaluation:

1. The performance of testees is evaluated with reference to some predetermined criteria.
2. No weightage is given to the norm or average performance of the group.
3. Decisions such as pass, fail and distinction are taken with reference to criteria set out in advance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q93 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q47. In constructing a criterion-referenced test, the first step prescribed in the unit is

A writing the test items B identifying the purpose of the test C fixing the duration of the test D selecting the standardization sample

Q94 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q47. In constructing a criterion-referenced test, the first step prescribed in the unit is

A writing the test items B identifying the purpose of the test C fixing the duration of the test D selecting the standardization sample

Q95 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q48. According to C. V. Good, a standardized test is one for which

A the items are arranged in decreasing order of difficulty B the procedure, apparatus and scoring have been fixed so that precisely the same test can be given at different times and places C content has been selected and checked empirically, norms have been established, and uniform methods of administration and scoring have been developed D the results are interpreted only against predetermined criteria

Q96 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q48. According to C. V. Good, a standardized test is one for which

A the items are arranged in decreasing order of difficulty B the procedure, apparatus and scoring have been fixed so that precisely the same test can be given at different times and places C content has been selected and checked empirically, norms have been established, and uniform methods of administration and scoring have been developed D the results are interpreted only against predetermined criteria

Q97 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q49. A standardized test minimizes or reduces four types of errors. Which of the following is not among them?

A Personal error B Variable error C Constant error D Sampling error

Q98 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q49. A standardized test minimizes or reduces four types of errors. Which of the following is not among them?

A Personal error B Variable error C Constant error D Sampling error

Q99 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q50. Which of the following are listed as characteristics of a standardized test?

1. Instructions for administration are predetermined and fixed.
2. The duration of the test is fixed.
3. It is standardized on a suitable sample selected from a well-defined population.
4. The answer key and scoring procedure are fixed and predetermined.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1, 2 and 3 only B 2, 3 and 4 only C 1, 3 and 4 only D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q100 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q50. Which of the following are listed as characteristics of a standardized test?

1. Instructions for administration are predetermined and fixed.
2. The duration of the test is fixed.
3. It is standardized on a suitable sample selected from a well-defined population.
4. The answer key and scoring procedure are fixed and predetermined.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1, 2 and 3 only B 2, 3 and 4 only C 1, 3 and 4 only D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q101 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q51. The manual that accompanies a standardized test primarily

A instructs and guides users regarding administration, scoring and interpretation B contains the answer key alone C lists the names of the standardization sample D records the scores of previous test takers

Q102 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q51. The manual that accompanies a standardized test primarily

A instructs and guides users regarding administration, scoring and interpretation B contains the answer key alone C lists the names of the standardization sample D records the scores of previous test takers

Q103 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q52. In the unit's example, 150 students take a 50-mark test and the group norm is 30. A student scores 12. Under norm-referenced evaluation this student is described as

A failed B below average C average D eligible for remedial certification

Q104 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q52. In the unit's example, 150 students take a 50-mark test and the group norm is 30. A student scores 12. Under norm-referenced evaluation this student is described as

A failed B below average C average D eligible for remedial certification

Q105 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q53. Frank S. Freeman defines a norm in measurement as

A the average performance made by a standardization sample B the highest score in the reference group C the average or standard score on a particular test made by a specified population D the criterion fixed before the test is administered

Q106 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q53. Frank S. Freeman defines a norm in measurement as

A the average performance made by a standardization sample B the highest score in the reference group C the average or standard score on a particular test made by a specified population D the criterion fixed before the test is administered

Q107 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q54. Norms are described in the unit as a device for

A eliminating the need for a standardization sample B fixing the pass percentage of a test C increasing the difficulty level of test items D transforming raw scores into standard scores in a group

Q108 Norms +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q54. Norms are described in the unit as a device for

A eliminating the need for a standardization sample B fixing the pass percentage of a test C increasing the difficulty level of test items D transforming raw scores into standard scores in a group

Q109 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q55. Two students take the same 50-mark test. Student X scores 22 and student Y scores 38. Under the criteria of pass at 40 per cent and distinction at 80 per cent, the correct description is

A X passes, Y passes but does not get distinction B X passes, Y gets distinction C X fails, Y gets distinction D both fail

Q110 Criterion-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q55. Two students take the same 50-mark test. Student X scores 22 and student Y scores 38. Under the criteria of pass at 40 per cent and distinction at 80 per cent, the correct description is

A X passes, Y passes but does not get distinction B X passes, Y gets distinction C X fails, Y gets distinction D both fail

Q111 Norm vs Criterion +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q56. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes the two systems of evaluation?

A In criterion-referenced evaluation a student's standing depends on the group's performance, while in norm-referenced evaluation it does not B In norm-referenced evaluation a student's standing depends on the group's performance, while in criterion-referenced evaluation it does not C Both systems depend equally on the group average D Neither system uses any reference point

Q112 Norm vs Criterion +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q56. Which of the following statements correctly distinguishes the two systems of evaluation?

A In criterion-referenced evaluation a student's standing depends on the group's performance, while in norm-referenced evaluation it does not B In norm-referenced evaluation a student's standing depends on the group's performance, while in criterion-referenced evaluation it does not C Both systems depend equally on the group average D Neither system uses any reference point

Q113 Concept of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q57. The unit's introduction states that inherent in the idea of evaluation is

A quantity B objectivity C value D prediction

Q114 Concept of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q57. The unit's introduction states that inherent in the idea of evaluation is

A quantity B objectivity C value D prediction

Q115 Concept of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q58. According to the book's introduction, educational measurement requires the establishment of

A an absolute zero point for every scale used B a single terminal examination at the end of each course C uniform question papers across all institutions D a strong feedback loop, with evaluation being a continuous process and not left until the end of the programme of study

Q116 Concept of Evaluation +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q58. According to the book's introduction, educational measurement requires the establishment of

A an absolute zero point for every scale used B a single terminal examination at the end of each course C uniform question papers across all institutions D a strong feedback loop, with evaluation being a continuous process and not left until the end of the programme of study

Q117 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q59. L. J. Cronbach's definition of a standardized test emphasizes that

A the procedure, apparatus and scoring have been fixed so that precisely the same test can be given at different times and places B its content has been checked empirically against a syllabus C its items are drawn only from criterion-referenced objectives D it must be administered by the teacher who prepared it

Q118 Standardized Tests +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q59. L. J. Cronbach's definition of a standardized test emphasizes that

A the procedure, apparatus and scoring have been fixed so that precisely the same test can be given at different times and places B its content has been checked empirically against a syllabus C its items are drawn only from criterion-referenced objectives D it must be administered by the teacher who prepared it

Q119 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q60. In the unit's example the norm of 30 was arrived at by

A taking the score of the middle-ranking student B adding the marks of all 150 students and dividing by 150 C taking the midpoint between the highest and lowest scores D fixing 60 per cent of the full marks in advance

Q120 Norm-referenced Testing +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q60. In the unit's example the norm of 30 was arrived at by

A taking the score of the middle-ranking student B adding the marks of all 150 students and dividing by 150 C taking the midpoint between the highest and lowest scores D fixing 60 per cent of the full marks in advance

Q121 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q61. Reliability of a test refers to

A the extent to which the test measures what it intends to measure B the appearance of the test to the person taking it C the consistency of measurement, that is how stable test scores are from one measurement to another D the degree to which the test matches a given external criterion

Q122 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q61. Reliability of a test refers to

A the extent to which the test measures what it intends to measure B the appearance of the test to the person taking it C the consistency of measurement, that is how stable test scores are from one measurement to another D the degree to which the test matches a given external criterion

Q123 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q62. Which of the following statements about the relationship between reliability and validity is correct?

A Reliability is a sufficient condition for validity B The two are entirely independent of each other C Validity is necessary but not sufficient for reliability D Reliability is necessary but not a sufficient condition for validity

Q124 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q62. Which of the following statements about the relationship between reliability and validity is correct?

A Reliability is a sufficient condition for validity B The two are entirely independent of each other C Validity is necessary but not sufficient for reliability D Reliability is necessary but not a sufficient condition for validity

Q125 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q63. Reliability, as stated in the unit, refers to

A the results obtained with the measuring instrument, and not to the instrument itself B the measuring instrument itself C the examiner who administers the instrument D the syllabus on which the instrument is based

Q126 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q63. Reliability, as stated in the unit, refers to

A the results obtained with the measuring instrument, and not to the instrument itself B the measuring instrument itself C the examiner who administers the instrument D the syllabus on which the instrument is based

Q127 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q64. What is the relationship between the length of a test and its reliability?

A There is a negative correlation; shorter tests are more reliable B There is a positive correlation; the more items a test contains, the greater its reliability C There is no relationship between the two D Reliability rises only up to fifty items and then falls

Q128 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q64. What is the relationship between the length of a test and its reliability?

A There is a negative correlation; shorter tests are more reliable B There is a positive correlation; the more items a test contains, the greater its reliability C There is no relationship between the two D Reliability rises only up to fifty items and then falls

Q129 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q65. The reliability coefficient of a test will be higher when the test is administered to

A a homogeneous group, since scores will cluster together B a group of fewer than thirty students C a heterogeneous group, since more variability gives a higher reliability coefficient D a group drawn entirely from one classroom

Q130 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q65. The reliability coefficient of a test will be higher when the test is administered to

A a homogeneous group, since scores will cluster together B a group of fewer than thirty students C a heterogeneous group, since more variability gives a higher reliability coefficient D a group drawn entirely from one classroom

Q131 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q66. Consider the following factors affecting reliability:

1. Guessing increases error variance and reduces reliability.
2. Complicated or difficult-to-understand instructions lead to less consistency in scores.
3. Items that are too easy or too difficult fail to distinguish between good and poor students.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q132 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q66. Consider the following factors affecting reliability:

1. Guessing increases error variance and reduces reliability.
2. Complicated or difficult-to-understand instructions lead to less consistency in scores.
3. Items that are too easy or too difficult fail to distinguish between good and poor students.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q133 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q67. Regarding alternative responses in test items, the unit states that

A two alternatives are always ideal B more alternative responses will reduce the reliability of the test C the number of alternatives has no effect on reliability D more alternative responses will increase the reliability of the test

Q134 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q67. Regarding alternative responses in test items, the unit states that

A two alternatives are always ideal B more alternative responses will reduce the reliability of the test C the number of alternatives has no effect on reliability D more alternative responses will increase the reliability of the test

Q135 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q68. In the test-retest method of estimating reliability,

A the same assessment is administered twice to the same group with a given time interval between the two administrations B two equivalent forms of a test are given to two different groups C the test is split into two halves and the halves are correlated D the scores of one group are compared with an external criterion

Q136 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q68. In the test-retest method of estimating reliability,

A the same assessment is administered twice to the same group with a given time interval between the two administrations B two equivalent forms of a test are given to two different groups C the test is split into two halves and the halves are correlated D the scores of one group are compared with an external criterion

Q137 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q69. Which of the following is listed in the unit among the 'other factors' affecting the reliability of tests?

A The reputation of the institution conducting the test B Subjectivity of the examiner, clerical error, interval between testing and effect of practice C The cost of administering the test D The number of examiners appointed

Q138 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q69. Which of the following is listed in the unit among the 'other factors' affecting the reliability of tests?

A The reputation of the institution conducting the test B Subjectivity of the examiner, clerical error, interval between testing and effect of practice C The cost of administering the test D The number of examiners appointed

Q139 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q70. The unit describes validity as

A one merit among several, which a good test may or may not possess B a purely statistical property with no evaluative element C the most important characteristic of a good test, without which the test is valueless D identical in meaning to reliability

Q140 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q70. The unit describes validity as

A one merit among several, which a good test may or may not possess B a purely statistical property with no evaluative element C the most important characteristic of a good test, without which the test is valueless D identical in meaning to reliability

Q141 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q71. Consider the following statements about validity:

1. Validity is a unitary concept.
2. It refers to the truthfulness of the test result.
3. In education and psychology no test is perfectly valid, because mental measurement is relative and not absolute.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q142 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q71. Consider the following statements about validity:

1. Validity is a unitary concept.
2. It refers to the truthfulness of the test result.
3. In education and psychology no test is perfectly valid, because mental measurement is relative and not absolute.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q143 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q72. Validity refers to the appropriateness of

A the testing procedure itself B the time allotted for the test C the printing and layout of the question paper D the interpretation of the result, and not to the procedure itself

Q144 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q72. Validity refers to the appropriateness of

A the testing procedure itself B the time allotted for the test C the printing and layout of the question paper D the interpretation of the result, and not to the procedure itself

Q145 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q73. How many types of validity are discussed in this unit?

A Six B Four C Three D Eight

Q146 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q73. How many types of validity are discussed in this unit?

A Six B Four C Three D Eight

Q147 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q74. Face validity refers to

A what the test actually measures, established statistically B what the test appears to measure, based on subjective judgment C the correlation of test scores with a future criterion D the internal consistency of the test items

Q148 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q74. Face validity refers to

A what the test actually measures, established statistically B what the test appears to measure, based on subjective judgment C the correlation of test scores with a future criterion D the internal consistency of the test items

Q149 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q75. A test is prepared to measure 'skill in division' and all the questions on it relate to division. The unit uses this example to illustrate

A content validity B predictive validity C face validity D construct validity

Q150 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q75. A test is prepared to measure 'skill in division' and all the questions on it relate to division. The unit uses this example to illustrate

A content validity B predictive validity C face validity D construct validity

Q151 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q76. Content validity is especially important when

A estimating the reliability coefficient B predicting future job performance C measuring personality traits D validating achievement testing or constructing classroom tests

Q152 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q76. Content validity is especially important when

A estimating the reliability coefficient B predicting future job performance C measuring personality traits D validating achievement testing or constructing classroom tests

Q153 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q77. Which of the following correctly states the asymmetry between validity and reliability?

A If a test is valid it is reliable, but a reliable test may or may not be valid B If a test is reliable it is valid, but a valid test may or may not be reliable C A test may be valid without being reliable D Validity and reliability always rise and fall together

Q154 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q77. Which of the following correctly states the asymmetry between validity and reliability?

A If a test is valid it is reliable, but a reliable test may or may not be valid B If a test is reliable it is valid, but a valid test may or may not be reliable C A test may be valid without being reliable D Validity and reliability always rise and fall together

Q155 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q78. Reliability is described in the unit as the coefficient of

A determination and regression B internal consistency and stability C variation and skewness D correlation and causation

Q156 Reliability +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q78. Reliability is described in the unit as the coefficient of

A determination and regression B internal consistency and stability C variation and skewness D correlation and causation

Q157 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q79. The statement 'no assessment is valid for all purposes' means that

A validity must be recomputed for every candidate B no test can ever be validated C a test is valid for a particular purpose only D only standardized tests can be valid

Q158 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q79. The statement 'no assessment is valid for all purposes' means that

A validity must be recomputed for every candidate B no test can ever be validated C a test is valid for a particular purpose only D only standardized tests can be valid

Q159 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q80. The validity of a test is determined by measuring

A the consistency of its scores over two administrations B the variability of the group tested C the number of items it contains D the extent to which it matches with a given criterion

Q160 Validity +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q80. The validity of a test is determined by measuring

A the consistency of its scores over two administrations B the variability of the group tested C the number of items it contains D the extent to which it matches with a given criterion

Q161 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q81. Tate, in 1955, defined the measures of central tendency as

A a sort of average or typical value of the items in the series, whose function is to summarize the series in terms of this average value B the point below which a given percent of cases lies C the spread or girth of a distribution about its centre D the difference between the highest and lowest scores

Q162 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q81. Tate, in 1955, defined the measures of central tendency as

A a sort of average or typical value of the items in the series, whose function is to summarize the series in terms of this average value B the point below which a given percent of cases lies C the spread or girth of a distribution about its centre D the difference between the highest and lowest scores

Q163 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q82. Which of the following are listed as requisites that a measure of central tendency should meet?

1. It should be rigidly defined, having only one interpretation.
2. It should have sampling stability, that is not be affected by sampling fluctuations.
3. It should not be affected much by extreme values.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q164 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q82. Which of the following are listed as requisites that a measure of central tendency should meet?

1. It should be rigidly defined, having only one interpretation.
2. It should have sampling stability, that is not be affected by sampling fluctuations.
3. It should not be affected much by extreme values.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q165 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q83. Five students score 12, 15, 15, 18 and 20 marks. The mean, median and mode of this set are respectively

A 15, 16 and 15 B 16, 15 and 15 C 16, 16 and 15 D 15, 15 and 16

Q166 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q83. Five students score 12, 15, 15, 18 and 20 marks. The mean, median and mode of this set are respectively

A 15, 16 and 15 B 16, 15 and 15 C 16, 16 and 15 D 15, 15 and 16

Q167 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q84. The requisite that a measure of central tendency 'should not be affected much by extreme values' matters because

A extreme values are always errors of measurement B extreme values cannot be plotted on a graph C a few very small or very large items would unduly influence the average and shift it to one side, so that it would not be typical of the entire series D extreme values make the distribution normal

Q168 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q84. The requisite that a measure of central tendency 'should not be affected much by extreme values' matters because

A extreme values are always errors of measurement B extreme values cannot be plotted on a graph C a few very small or very large items would unduly influence the average and shift it to one side, so that it would not be typical of the entire series D extreme values make the distribution normal

Q169 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q85. The tendency of most scores in a class to lie somewhere between the highest and the lowest, with very few students scoring very high or very low, is termed

A variability B kurtosis C skewness D central tendency

Q170 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q85. The tendency of most scores in a class to lie somewhere between the highest and the lowest, with very few students scoring very high or very low, is termed

A variability B kurtosis C skewness D central tendency

Q171 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q86. A percentile is best defined as

A the point below which the given percent of cases lies B the percentage of marks obtained by a student C the number of students who scored above a given mark D the difference between the third and first quartiles

Q172 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q86. A percentile is best defined as

A the point below which the given percent of cases lies B the percentage of marks obtained by a student C the number of students who scored above a given mark D the difference between the third and first quartiles

Q173 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q87. A student is reported as having achieved the 84th percentile in a test. This means that

A the student obtained 84 per cent marks B 84 per cent of the examinees scored less than this student C 84 per cent of the examinees scored more than this student D the student's score is 84 marks above the mean

Q174 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q87. A student is reported as having achieved the 84th percentile in a test. This means that

A the student obtained 84 per cent marks B 84 per cent of the examinees scored less than this student C 84 per cent of the examinees scored more than this student D the student's score is 84 marks above the mean

Q175 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q88. In a group of 200 students, a student stands at the 75th percentile. The number of students who scored below this student is

A 50 B 75 C 150 D 125

Q176 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q88. In a group of 200 students, a student stands at the 75th percentile. The number of students who scored below this student is

A 50 B 75 C 150 D 125

Q177 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q89. Q1 and Q3 in a distribution mark the points below which lie, respectively,

A 10 per cent and 90 per cent of the cases B 50 per cent and 100 per cent of the cases C 33 per cent and 66 per cent of the cases D 25 per cent and 75 per cent of the cases

Q178 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q89. Q1 and Q3 in a distribution mark the points below which lie, respectively,

A 10 per cent and 90 per cent of the cases B 50 per cent and 100 per cent of the cases C 33 per cent and 66 per cent of the cases D 25 per cent and 75 per cent of the cases

Q179 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q90. In the percentile formula Pp = l + [(pN – F)/fp] × i, the symbol 'i' stands for

A the size or length of the class interval B the number of scores within the interval on which Pp falls C the exact lower limit of the class interval on which Pp lies D the sum of all scores on intervals below l

Q180 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q90. In the percentile formula Pp = l + [(pN – F)/fp] × i, the symbol 'i' stands for

A the size or length of the class interval B the number of scores within the interval on which Pp falls C the exact lower limit of the class interval on which Pp lies D the sum of all scores on intervals below l

Q181 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q91. Using Pp = l + [(pN – F)/fp] × i, compute P50 where l = 40, N = 100, F = 40, fp = 20 and i = 10.

A 40 B 45 C 50 D 55

Q182 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q91. Using Pp = l + [(pN – F)/fp] × i, compute P50 where l = 40, N = 100, F = 40, fp = 20 and i = 10.

A 40 B 45 C 50 D 55

Q183 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q92. The unit argues that reporting a student's marks as a percentile is more informative than reporting 80 per cent marks in mathematics because

A percentiles are always higher than percentages B percentages cannot be computed for small classes C 80 per cent may be the highest, the lowest or the average in the class, and the percentage alone does not say which D percentiles are unaffected by the difficulty of the paper

Q184 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q92. The unit argues that reporting a student's marks as a percentile is more informative than reporting 80 per cent marks in mathematics because

A percentiles are always higher than percentages B percentages cannot be computed for small classes C 80 per cent may be the highest, the lowest or the average in the class, and the percentage alone does not say which D percentiles are unaffected by the difficulty of the paper

Q185 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q93. P15 refers to

A the fifteenth student in rank order B the point above which 15 per cent of the scores lie C a score of 15 marks D the point below which 15 per cent of the scores lie

Q186 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q93. P15 refers to

A the fifteenth student in rank order B the point above which 15 per cent of the scores lie C a score of 15 marks D the point below which 15 per cent of the scores lie

Q187 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q94. When the word 'average' is used in daily communication, the unit notes that it almost always refers to

A the arithmetic mean B the mode C the median D the range

Q188 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q94. When the word 'average' is used in daily communication, the unit notes that it almost always refers to

A the arithmetic mean B the mode C the median D the range

Q189 Statistical Treatment of Data +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q95. Which of the following functions are performed while processing data, according to the unit?

1. Editing
2. Coding
3. Tabulation
4. Classification

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 1, 2 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 only D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q190 Statistical Treatment of Data +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q95. Which of the following functions are performed while processing data, according to the unit?

1. Editing
2. Coding
3. Tabulation
4. Classification

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 1, 2 and 3 only C 2, 3 and 4 only D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q191 Statistical Treatment of Data +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q96. Editing of data, as described in the unit, involves

A assigning numerals to categories for computer entry B testing data collection instruments to ensure maximum accuracy, by checking legibility, consistency and completeness C arranging data into a frequency distribution D computing measures of central tendency

Q192 Statistical Treatment of Data +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q96. Editing of data, as described in the unit, involves

A assigning numerals to categories for computer entry B testing data collection instruments to ensure maximum accuracy, by checking legibility, consistency and completeness C arranging data into a frequency distribution D computing measures of central tendency

Q193 Statistical Treatment of Data +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q97. Analysis of data is defined in the unit as

A the mere collection of data from a sample B the printing of tables and graphs C the computation of certain measures along with searching for patterns of relationship that may exist among data groups D the selection of a representative sample

Q194 Statistical Treatment of Data +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q97. Analysis of data is defined in the unit as

A the mere collection of data from a sample B the printing of tables and graphs C the computation of certain measures along with searching for patterns of relationship that may exist among data groups D the selection of a representative sample

Q195 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q98. A student's scores in six tests are 20, 22, 24, 26, 28 and 30. The arithmetic mean is

A 24 B 27 C 26 D 25

Q196 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q98. A student's scores in six tests are 20, 22, 24, 26, 28 and 30. The arithmetic mean is

A 24 B 27 C 26 D 25

Q197 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q99. The method of finding a percentile is described in the unit as

A essentially the same as that used in computing the median and quartile deviation B entirely different from that used for the median C possible only for grouped data of more than 100 cases D dependent on first computing the standard deviation

Q198 Percentile +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q99. The method of finding a percentile is described in the unit as

A essentially the same as that used in computing the median and quartile deviation B entirely different from that used for the median C possible only for grouped data of more than 100 cases D dependent on first computing the standard deviation

Q199 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q100. Measures of central tendency are described in the unit as useful for

A eliminating extreme scores from a distribution B presenting the overall picture of the entire data and for making comparisons among two or more sets of data C establishing the reliability of a test D converting raw scores into percentile ranks

Q200 Central Tendency +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q100. Measures of central tendency are described in the unit as useful for

A eliminating extreme scores from a distribution B presenting the overall picture of the entire data and for making comparisons among two or more sets of data C establishing the reliability of a test D converting raw scores into percentile ranks

Q201 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q101. The shape of the normal probability curve depends on which two parameters?

A The range and the median B The mode and the quartile deviation C The mean and the standard deviation D The skewness and the kurtosis

Q202 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q101. The shape of the normal probability curve depends on which two parameters?

A The range and the median B The mode and the quartile deviation C The mean and the standard deviation D The skewness and the kurtosis

Q203 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q102. If the standard deviation of a normal distribution is large, the curve will be

A tall and narrow B unchanged in shape, only shifted along the axis C skewed to the right D short and wide

Q204 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q102. If the standard deviation of a normal distribution is large, the curve will be

A tall and narrow B unchanged in shape, only shifted along the axis C skewed to the right D short and wide

Q205 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q103. The normal distribution is also known as the Gaussian distribution in honour of

A Karl Gauss, an eighteenth century mathematician and astronomer B Benjamin Bloom C Lee J. Cronbach D E. L. Thorndike

Q206 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q103. The normal distribution is also known as the Gaussian distribution in honour of

A Karl Gauss, an eighteenth century mathematician and astronomer B Benjamin Bloom C Lee J. Cronbach D E. L. Thorndike

Q207 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q104. The normal distribution can be theoretically derived as the limiting form of the binomial expansion of (p + q)ⁿ when

A n is small and p is greater than q B n is infinity and p = q = 1/2 C n equals 2 and p = q D p equals zero and q equals one

Q208 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q104. The normal distribution can be theoretically derived as the limiting form of the binomial expansion of (p + q)ⁿ when

A n is small and p is greater than q B n is infinity and p = q = 1/2 C n equals 2 and p = q D p equals zero and q equals one

Q209 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q105. Consider the following statements about the normal probability curve:

1. All normal distributions are symmetric and have bell-shaped density curves with a single peak.
2. It is the most important and frequently used continuous probability distribution.
3. It has special significance in inferential statistics because it describes probabilistically the link between a statistic and a parameter.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q210 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q105. Consider the following statements about the normal probability curve:

1. All normal distributions are symmetric and have bell-shaped density curves with a single peak.
2. It is the most important and frequently used continuous probability distribution.
3. It has special significance in inferential statistics because it describes probabilistically the link between a statistic and a parameter.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q211 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q106. Data that, when graphed as a histogram with data on the horizontal axis and amount of data on the vertical axis, creates a bell-shaped curve is described as

A a skewed distribution B a rectangular distribution C a normal probability curve or normal distribution D a bimodal distribution

Q212 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q106. Data that, when graphed as a histogram with data on the horizontal axis and amount of data on the vertical axis, creates a bell-shaped curve is described as

A a skewed distribution B a rectangular distribution C a normal probability curve or normal distribution D a bimodal distribution

Q213 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q107. In a normal distribution, the mean determines the ______ of the graph, while the standard deviation determines its ______.

A height and width; location of the centre B area; perimeter C skewness; kurtosis D location of the centre; height and width

Q214 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q107. In a normal distribution, the mean determines the ______ of the graph, while the standard deviation determines its ______.

A height and width; location of the centre B area; perimeter C skewness; kurtosis D location of the centre; height and width

Q215 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q108. Normal distributions are described in the unit as typically used, in the natural and social sciences, for

A real-valued random variables whose distributions are not known B variables that are known to be uniformly distributed C categorical variables measured on a nominal scale D variables with fewer than ten possible values

Q216 Normal Probability Curve +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q108. Normal distributions are described in the unit as typically used, in the natural and social sciences, for

A real-valued random variables whose distributions are not known B variables that are known to be uniformly distributed C categorical variables measured on a nominal scale D variables with fewer than ten possible values

Q217 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q109. Educational measurement is described as relative rather than absolute, which means that an individual must be evaluated

A against a fixed international standard B in relation to others in a class or group C only against his own earlier performance D without reference to any comparison at all

Q218 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q109. Educational measurement is described as relative rather than absolute, which means that an individual must be evaluated

A against a fixed international standard B in relation to others in a class or group C only against his own earlier performance D without reference to any comparison at all

Q219 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q110. Norms are described as a statistical procedure to

A increase the difficulty of a test B replace the need for reliability estimates C minimize the interpretive error of a test score D convert a criterion-referenced test into a norm-referenced one

Q220 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q110. Norms are described as a statistical procedure to

A increase the difficulty of a test B replace the need for reliability estimates C minimize the interpretive error of a test score D convert a criterion-referenced test into a norm-referenced one

Q221 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q111. The norms of an educational test represent

A the maximum marks obtainable on the test B the time limit prescribed for the test C the syllabus coverage of the test D the average test performance of the standardized group or sample selected from a specified population

Q222 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q111. The norms of an educational test represent

A the maximum marks obtainable on the test B the time limit prescribed for the test C the syllabus coverage of the test D the average test performance of the standardized group or sample selected from a specified population

Q223 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q112. Which of the following are listed among the uses of norms?

1. Selection and classification of students
2. Provision of guidance and counselling
3. Indicating the attainment of instructional objectives by students

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q224 Derived Scores +2.50 / -0.83 Hard

Q112. Which of the following are listed among the uses of norms?

1. Selection and classification of students
2. Provision of guidance and counselling
3. Indicating the attainment of instructional objectives by students

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3

Q225 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q113. Two normal distributions have the same mean of 50, but distribution A has a standard deviation of 5 and distribution B a standard deviation of 15. Which of the following is correct?

A A is tall and narrow, B is short and wide B A is short and wide, B is tall and narrow C Both curves are identical in shape D A is shifted to the left of B

Q226 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q113. Two normal distributions have the same mean of 50, but distribution A has a standard deviation of 5 and distribution B a standard deviation of 15. Which of the following is correct?

A A is tall and narrow, B is short and wide B A is short and wide, B is tall and narrow C Both curves are identical in shape D A is shifted to the left of B

Q227 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q114. In a group of 400 examinees, a candidate stands at the 90th percentile. The number of examinees who scored above this candidate is

A 10 B 40 C 90 D 360

Q228 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q114. In a group of 400 examinees, a candidate stands at the 90th percentile. The number of examinees who scored above this candidate is

A 10 B 40 C 90 D 360

Q229 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q115. A test of 80 marks fixes the pass criterion at 35 per cent and distinction at 75 per cent. The marks required for pass and for distinction are respectively

A 28 and 64 B 30 and 60 C 28 and 60 D 35 and 75

Q230 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q115. A test of 80 marks fixes the pass criterion at 35 per cent and distinction at 75 per cent. The marks required for pass and for distinction are respectively

A 28 and 64 B 30 and 60 C 28 and 60 D 35 and 75

Q231 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q116. A class of 40 students has a mean score of 45. If a student who scored 45 is added to the class, the new mean will be

A greater than 45 B impossible to determine without the individual scores C less than 45 D exactly 45

Q232 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q116. A class of 40 students has a mean score of 45. If a student who scored 45 is added to the class, the new mean will be

A greater than 45 B impossible to determine without the individual scores C less than 45 D exactly 45

Q233 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q117. A researcher measures the religion of respondents and records it as Hindu, Muslim, Christian or Other. The appropriate scale of measurement and an appropriate statistic are respectively

A nominal scale; mode B ordinal scale; median C interval scale; mean D ratio scale; geometric mean

Q234 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q117. A researcher measures the religion of respondents and records it as Hindu, Muslim, Christian or Other. The appropriate scale of measurement and an appropriate statistic are respectively

A nominal scale; mode B ordinal scale; median C interval scale; mean D ratio scale; geometric mean

Q235 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q118. A teacher ranks ten students from first to tenth on classroom participation. Which statistic is appropriate for these data?

A Mean and standard deviation B Rank order correlation C Regression and factor analysis D Analysis of variance in its parametric form

Q236 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Easy

Q118. A teacher ranks ten students from first to tenth on classroom participation. Which statistic is appropriate for these data?

A Mean and standard deviation B Rank order correlation C Regression and factor analysis D Analysis of variance in its parametric form

Q237 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q119. A 100-item test is shortened to 40 items, and the group tested is also made more homogeneous. On the basis of the factors affecting reliability, the expected effect on the reliability coefficient is that it will

A rise, because a shorter test is easier to score B remain unchanged, since reliability depends only on the items C fall, because both changes work in the direction of lower reliability D rise, because homogeneity removes extreme scores

Q238 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q119. A 100-item test is shortened to 40 items, and the group tested is also made more homogeneous. On the basis of the factors affecting reliability, the expected effect on the reliability coefficient is that it will

A rise, because a shorter test is easier to score B remain unchanged, since reliability depends only on the items C fall, because both changes work in the direction of lower reliability D rise, because homogeneity removes extreme scores

Q239 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q120. A well-constructed test consistently gives the same scores on retesting, but experts find that its items do not represent the content domain it claims to cover. The test is best described as

A valid but not reliable B neither reliable nor valid C both reliable and valid D reliable but not valid

Q240 Applied Statistics +2.50 / -0.83 Medium

Q120. A well-constructed test consistently gives the same scores on retesting, but experts find that its items do not represent the content domain it claims to cover. The test is best described as

A valid but not reliable B neither reliable nor valid C both reliable and valid D reliable but not valid

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